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I'm curious as to why you think the existence of criminals and pirates is "proof" of social actors outside the constructs of Leviathan. My understanding is that even the illegalists themselves acknowledged that their illegalist praxis was just a job, even if one outside of state/social norms, and that it was therefore just as subject to the problems of capitalism as any other job. We also know that the existence of pirates directly correlates far more with economic conditions in an area than even things like how much law enforcement/private security is currently in use (Somalia, in particular, has very clear economic indicators that these forces have effectively used to allocate/deallocate resources in advance of the tidal shifts in pirate activity). Are you claiming that something has to be *legal* to be an aspect of Leviathan?